Before marriage, the house belonged to the man, and the furniture and household appliances belonged

Updated on furniture 2024-06-03
6 answers
  1. Anonymous users2024-01-24

    From the perspective of property alone, the house is indeed the man's pre-marital property, and the woman cannot divide the property rights in the event of divorce.

    Now that they have children, the court will rule accordingly in accordance with the law on the use of the house and the living of the woman and the child.

  2. Anonymous users2024-01-23

    How long have you been married? Who will raise the child? Who is responsible for the family finances? Who filed for divorce?

    And so on, and whether it is a negotiated departure or a court judgment?

  3. Anonymous users2024-01-22

    If the real estate certificate is processed before the marriage, then the house must be legally owned by the man.

  4. Anonymous users2024-01-21

    If there is no justice between the two parties, the house, furniture, household appliances, etc. belong to the man's premarital property, and you have no right to divide the divorce, if the child and the other party bear child support, if the child and the man you also have to bear the maintenance (it can also be settled through negotiation between the two parties or the court judgment).

  5. Anonymous users2024-01-20

    Pre-marital property belongs to the individual, and you don't have a share.

  6. Anonymous users2024-01-19

    Do you have an office permit? If you don't do it, it should be both sides!

Related questions
The house, household appliances, and furniture were all bought by the man before marriage, and he go
5 answers2024-06-03

If there is no divorce, the property jointly owned by the husband and wife will not be compensated.

The household appliances and furniture purchased by the man before marriage, and the house belonged
2 answers2024-06-03

It feels that the amount is large, and the amount you transferred is consistent with the amount and time of loan repayment, which can be used as a basis. Personal advice. At present, I am still divorced, not that I have decided to divorce, and we are still getting along together. >>>More

The furniture and appliances are all bought by the man, and the house belongs to the woman, and now
2 answers2024-06-03

Furniture and appliances depend on whether they are pre-marital or post-marital property. >>>More

I want to divorce now, before the house is mine, now at home, TV, refrigerator, washing machine, two
13 answers2024-06-03

In fact, it is not easy for two people to come together, so you still have to think twice. >>>More

The household appliances and furniture at home are all bought a few days before the wedding, how to
2 answers2024-06-03

Hello, you need to leave the invoice for the purchase, as well as a clear date, as direct evidence, but if you have not done a premarital property notarization, this kind of furniture and appliances belong to the joint property of the two of you, and you can only get half of it back after the divorce, but if you can prove that the household appliances and furniture are not bought for the two of you to use (for example, you said that you bought it for your brother, but he can't put it at home, so let me use it first, and if you like this, you can take it away), the law will basically divide it into common property.